Does the act of seeing a visual historic record of victim causing crime create a victim, or must the victim already have been created for the evidence to exist? People argue that viewing CP is an act of so called "revictimization", but not that viewing pictures of the holocaust is. Then they say that it is the act of taking joy from a victim causing crime that causes the revictimization to take place, but it isn't illegal to be happy when a person has been murdered, only to commit murder. I can not logically comprehend what differentiates images of one sort of victim causing crime from another. I can not logically comprehend what differentiates one mans experience of joy from the result of a crime from anothers. I can only use logic to see the analytical flaws of those who do see such differentiations. However, in several cases there is no flaw, as their desire is merely to excuse the injustice that they do to people who they find to be morally disgusting, often for having a mental illness or for not conforming to the baseless and hypocritical standards of synthetically produced American political correctness.